Is it possible to live a sinless life after salvation?

1)    In 1 Kgs. 8:46 the Bible says “____________________________________________________.”

2)    1 Kgs. 8:46 is part of a prayer by Solomon; Solomon was dedicating the temple.

3)    Aside from Jesus, Solomon must be ranked as one of the smartest and wisest men who has ever lived.

4)    In Prov. 20:9 we have a wise saying given by the same man described in 1 Kgs. 8:46 (Solomon).

5)    READ

i)      What man or woman can truthfully say, “I am pure from my sin?”

ii)    We are all guilty of sin – not one accountable person is free of unrighteousness.

6)    Eccl. 7:20.

ALL BESIDES THE LORD HAVE SINNED!.

1)    Mt. 18:15.

2)    At the end of Mt. 18:15 Jesus spoke about “gaining” the brother who had sinned.

3)    The brother who sinned was still a brother; he had been in the wrong but he not lost his salvation.

4)    A few verses later in this chapter (Mt. 18:21) Peter asked about a “brother” sinning against him.

5)    The Lord did not say the sinning brother was no longer a brother or some type of apostate.

6)    In 1 Cor. 8:12 Paul spoke of “sinning against the brethren.”

i)      1 Jn. 1:10– READ

ii)    In this verse the expression “we have not sinned” is expressed with the perfect tense.

7)    The perfect tense describes something in the past that has a result which is on-going.

8)    Verse 8 says – READ

i)      The pronoun “we” in this verse plus verse 10 includes the writer of this book (the apostle John).

ii)    John said he and other saints could claim they “had no sin” and here he used the present tense.

9)    In 1 Jn. 1:8 John described the very doctrine affirmed by our visitors last Sunday evening.

10) 1 Jn. 1:7 – READ

11) John recognized that Christians “walk in the light,” but this does not mean they never commit sin.

12)  As was pointed out last Sunday night, the verb “cleanse” in 1 Jn. 1:7 is expressed with present tense.

13) As Paul said in Rom. 3:23, even Christians “fall short” (present tense) of God’s glory.

14) In my discussion with the Warsaw preacher last Sunday night I made reference to Jas. 3.

i)      James (3:2) used that pesky pronoun “we.”

ii)    “We” includes the person who is speaking or writing, so James included himself.

15) In Jas. 3:2 this inspired writer said, “in many things” we all do something.

16) James said “we all stumble” and then added, “in many things.”

17) In Jas. 3:8 we are told “no man” (would this not include Christians?) can “tame the tongue.”

18) Then in verse 9 James uses this pesky pronoun (“we”) again.

19) James said “we” both “bless and curse” with the tongue.  Does this sound like a sinless life?

20) THEN in verse 10 he said, “brethren” (Christians) “these things ought not to be so.

21) Verse 14 in this chapter talks about “bitter jealousy” and “faction” in the heart (this sounds like sin).

22) If this information is not enough, notice how the 4^th chapter of James opens.

23) Only in eternity will we be completely free of sin, but God can “wash” us from sin in this life.

24) Are we someone who has been “washed” from sin?